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Did it help with keeping fascists out of power in Poland?

If not, then what was the actual purpose of the law?



That's like asking "if there are still racists in the US, what's the point of the constitution - after all it clearly states all men are equal!".

Yes, there are still facists in Poland - does that mean the law was pointless? Of course not.

And of course I don't think I have to point out that you can be a fascist and not deny holocaust, so this law wouldn't do anything in that case.


I didn't ask if there are fascists in Poland, because that is not a problem in and of itself. The problem is that proto-fascists are in power in Poland. And they are actively denying the involvement of many Polish nationals in Anti-Semitic pogroms that were a part of the Holocaust.

But ignoring that, you appear to be saying that it's significantly worse to deny the Holocaust, than to be a fascist, seeing how the law doesn't apply to fascists who "moved on with the times"?


No, that's not what I am saying.




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