> “folks” can’t be gender-neutrally translated in some languages (e.g. spanish) so folx is considered more inclusive

That makes sense to you? Help me out here, because I feel like I'm going crazy trying to understand this.

"Folk", is just an English word for "people". Isn't it just going to get translated into a totally different word in Spanish anyhow? Why would altering the plural spelling of an English word affect the translation of that word to another language? The meaning wasn't altered by changing spelling. It was gender-neutral to begin with.