What does that even mean? Cultures where the population is more sexual dimorphic tend to be have more polygyny?
Or cultures with more polygyny tend towards sexual dimorphism?
Or is this a meaningless correlation?
How is this supposed to explain why the early Latter Day Saint movement were polygamous when they were from the same genetic population as other white Americans in western New York?
Or how Muslim Iberia maintained polygamous traditions despite an increasing genetic contribution from monogamous Christian Europe?
Or how Norse monogamy appears to have increased after the introduction of Christianity, even among the same genetic population?
Or how non-monogamous relationships are increasing in the US even after only 20 years? That's too fast to be caused by a change in population genetics.
Simply put, I don't see how your claim makes any sense. What sources did you use to come to your conclusion?
