What if the trespassers just ignore the sign, and walk on/over the privately owned land without the landowner ever becoming aware of it? How could the landowner sue the unknown trespassers when there wasn't even any evidence of their trespassing?
Yes, that's what I was asking. Your previous comment indicated the homeowner needed evidence in order to sue for trespassing. But it seems there was no crime committed after all.
Really asking: Wouldn't a "no trespassing" sign be considered an ask to leave?