Is that a mistake?
The claim here was that "magnetic force decayed by 1/r³" which is the result of seeing a dipole ("two sources") from far away. Each pole decays by 1/r² and the net result (the combined effect of both poles on a test particle) is proportional to 1/r³
I would look at these:
https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/184211/why-does-...
https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/293310/why-does-...
And understand both electrostatic and magnetic dipoles in analogous terms.
Is that a mistake?