"Someone who is homosexual isn't any more inclined to molest or rape someone of their own sex than a pedophile is to molest or rape a child."
I'm sure you meant something about the proclivity to commit rape or molestation, but all this statement does is say there is a positive correlation between the two groups (and no citation or explanation of reasoning either).
Your statement would still be true if both groups had a large increase in probability of rape or molestation, vs the non-homosexual and/or non-pedophile.
I'm sure you meant something about the proclivity to commit rape or molestation, but all this statement does is say there is a positive correlation between the two groups (and no citation or explanation of reasoning either).
Your statement would still be true if both groups had a large increase in probability of rape or molestation, vs the non-homosexual and/or non-pedophile.